Let f be a real valued function defined on a domain D⊆R
Suppose a∈D (ie. f(a) is defined)
We say that f is continuous at a
if f(a)=limx→af(x)
Recall that for limx→af(x) to exist the function f(x) must be defined in some open interval containing a.
(but not necessarily at x=a)
So, f(x) in continuous at x=a
(i) if limx→af(x) exists
and (ii) f(a)=limx→af(x).
So, for f(x) to be continuous at x=a
the function must be defined at x=a
and f(a) must equal limx→af(x).
f(x)= {0,1,x<0x⩾0
Here, limx→0f(x) does not
exist (because limx→0−f(x)=0=1=limx→0+f(x) )
So, f(x) is not continuous at x=0 (even though f(x) is defined at x=0;f(0)=1 )
But if a=0, then limx→af(x)={1,0, if a>0 if a<0
Also, f(a)={10 if a>0 if a<0
∴f(x) is continuous at all points except x=0.
If f(x) is not continuous at x=a, we will say that f(x) is discontinuous at x=a.
If we can draw the graph of the function y=f(x), then the continuity of f(x) at x=a means that the graph is not "broken" near the point (a,f(a)) in the graph.
For f(x)={1,0,x⩾0x<0
f(x) has "broken" graph near (0,1).
(2) f(x)={1,0,x=0x=0
Here limx→0f(x) exists & is equal to 1 .
But, f(0)=0=limx→0f(x)
Hence, f(x) is discontinuous at x=0
Let's consider
f(x)={xsin(x1),0,x=0x=0
Is f continuous at x=0 ? It is difficult to draw the graph.
But the limx→0f(x) can be calculated as follows.
∣f(x)∣=xsin(x1)⩽∣x∣sin(x1)
∴sin(x1)⩽1
∴0⩽xsin(x1)⩽∣x∣
Since limx→0x=0=limx→00, by the Sandwich theorem, limx→0xsin(x1)=0
⇒limx→0∣xsin(x1)∣=0
∴f(0)=0=limx→0f(x)
So, f(x) is continuous at x=0.
Let f(x) be a real-valued function.
we say that f(x) is differentiable at x=a if the limit limh→0hf(a+h)−f(a) exists.
Note that for f(x) to be differentiable at x=a the function f(x) must be defined in an open interval containing x=a.
As h→0 the point Q→P, and the secant (ie. the line segment joining P and Q) approaches the tangent line at the point (a,f(a))
So, limh→0hf(a+h)−f(a) is the slope of the tangent, provided the limit exists.
(1) f:R→R,f(x)=c, a constant. ∀x∈R.
For any a∈R,f(a+h)−f(a)=c−c=0∀h
∴limh→0hf(a+h)−f(a)=0
∴f is differentiable at every a and f′(a)=0.
(2) f(x)=x
f′(a)=limh→0hf(a+h)−f(a)
=limh→0h(a+h)−α=limh→0kk′=1
So, for f(x)=x,f′(x)=1 for all x∈R
(3) f(x)=x2
hf(x+h)−f(x)=h(x+h)2−x2,h=0
=hx2+2hx+h2−x2
=hh(2x+h)=2x+h
→2x as h→0
∴f′(x)=limh→0hf(x+h)−f(x)=2x.
Notation: f′(x) is also denoted by dxdf(x) is dxdy, where y=f(x).
So, dxd(c)=0
dxd(x)=1
dxd(x2)=2x
Property: (1) Let f(x) and g(x) be differentiable at x=a. Then f(x)+g(x) is also diff at x=a, and
dxd∣x=a(f(x)+g(x))=
dxd∣x=af(x)
+dxd∣x=ag(x)=f′(a)+g′(a)
Proof: Let u(x)=f(x)+g(x)
for h=0,hu(a+h)−u(a)=[f(a+h)+g(a+h)]−[f(a)+g(a)]
∴limh→0hu(a+h)−u(a)=limh→0hf(a+h)−f(a)
+limh→0hg(a+h)−g(a)
(by the sum Rule of limits)
ie. u′(a)=f′(a)+g′(a)
(2) If u(x)=cf(x) for some c∈R, & f′(a) exists, then u′(a) exists and u′(a)=cf′(a).
Proof: For h=0,hu(a+h)−u(a)=hcf(a+h)−cf(a) =c[hf(a+h)−f(a)]
→cf′(a) as h→0.
∴u′(a)=cf′(a).
(3) If u(x)=c1f(x)+c2g(x) and f′(a),g′(a) exists then
u′(a)=c1f′(a)+c2g′(a).
Proof: u′(a)=dxd∣x=a(c1f(x))
+dxd∣x=a(c2g(x))
=c1f′(a)+c2g′(a)
(by the previous the results).
Let f(x)=x2−3x+2
Calculate f′(3), if it exists.
Since dxd(x2)=2x,dxd(x)=1,dxd(2)=0,
f′(x)=dxd(x2−3x+2)=2x−3(1)+0
=2x−3
∴f′(3)=2(3)−3=3 .